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3#
发表于 2013-4-22 15:39
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roy_cfa wrote:
Now my question is I am not able to prove it mathematically that in 2.653 years I am able to recover 94.213 given all above conditions.
Good, because you shouldn’t be able to. Macaulay’s duration is the weighted average maturity of cash flows. No one said that you’re gonna recover the PV (or FV) of all of your CFs in years.
A brief look at the formula might help you gain some appreciation of what’s going on. You should realize that Macaulay’s is just the sum of the (present values of each cash flow * time (in years) when it is received) scaled by the present value of the bond. It’s like the average age of your CFs.
Notice that you WILL recover everything in years if you’re dealing with a zero-coupon bond. This is because the PV of the single CF will be equal to the PV of the bond (so the ratio=1); multiply that by t, and you get duration=t. Notice, however, that this is just a special case, not the definition of duration. |
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