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CFAI on pg 26 reading 44 states...
"Delay costs reflect change in price (close to close price) over the day an order is placed when the order is NOT EXECUTED that day, the calculation is based on amount of order filled subsequently"
In the example that follows on the same page, they have TUesday where no orders are placed and nothing is executed and they calculate delay costs as 10.05-10/10. 10.05 being the closing price on tuesday and 10 being the benchmark/Mondays Close. OK this makes sense. In the description above it says the change in price over the day an order is placed when the order is not executed that day. There was no execution on Tuesday so I see why they calculate Delay costs in this example...
On the next day Wednesday, a partial order is filled to buy 700 at 10.07. They did not complete the full order, but a trade WAS executed on this day. In the example below it seems like we have the same type of day as this wednesday only the calculate delay costs in it.
SO...
in EOC question 11B It says on a Tuesday100 shares are purchased at 10.08 per share and it closes at 10.01. 10 was the benchmark. In the answer to calculate Delay Costs, they take 10.01-10/10, which is Tuesdays close- previous close.
My question is that on this Tuesday in the second problem, an order WAS executed on Tuesday and CFAI says that Delay costs are only calculated when the order is NOT EXECUTED that day.
What am I missing and why did they exclude Delay from Wed in the top example and include it in Tues of the second example?
I am definitely missing something here. |
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