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Which of the following statements regarding yield spreads is least accurate? The:
A. option cost in percentage terms can be computed by subtracting the OAS from the zero-volatility spread.
B. nominal yield spread measures the difference between the YTM on a risky bond and the YTM on a Treasury bond of similar maturity.
C. The zero volatility spread is the constant spread that is added to each Treasury spot rate to equate the present value of a bond's cash flows to the price of an otherwise identical option-free bond.
Answer:
C. The zero volatility spread is the constant spread that is added to each Treasury spot rate to equate the present value of a bond's cash flows to its actual market price.
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A and B is correct, but I not able to understand the explantion for C. In the question where they state "...bond's cash flows to the price of an otherwise identical option-free bond" - isn't the PRICE assumed to be the market price here? What is the difference between this and the "...bond's cash flows to its actual market price" as they have stated in the answer? |
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