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A factor portfolio is a portfolio with:
A)

a factor sensitivity of one to a particular factor in a multi-factor model and zero to all other factors.
B)

a specific set of factor sensitivities designed to replicate the factor exposures of a benchmark index.
C)

factor sensitivities of zero to all factors, positive expected net cash flow, and an initial investment of zero.



A factor portfolio is a portfolio with a factor sensitivity of one to a particular factor and zero to all other factors. An arbitrage portfolio is a portfolio with factor sensitivities of zero to all factors, positive expected net cash flow, and an initial investment of zero. A tracking portfolio is a portfolio with a specific set of factor sensitivities designed to replicate the factor exposures of a benchmark index.

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A tracking portfolio is a portfolio with:
A)

factor sensitivities of zero to all factors, positive expected net cash flow, and an initial investment of zero.
B)

a specific set of factor sensitivities designed to replicate the factor exposures of a benchmark index.
C)

a factor sensitivity of one to a particular factor in a multi-factor model and zero to all other factors.



A tracking portfolio is a portfolio with a specific set of factor sensitivities designed to replicate the factor exposures of a benchmark index. A factor portfolio is a portfolio with a factor sensitivity of one to a particular factor and zero to all other factors. An arbitrage portfolio is a portfolio with factor sensitivities of zero to all factors, positive expected net cash flow, and an initial investment of zero.

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Janice Barefoot, CFA, has managed a portfolio where she used the Dow Jones Industrial Average (DJIA) as a benchmark. In the past two years the average monthly return on her portfolio has been higher than that of the DJIA. To get a measure of active return per unit of active risk Barefoot should compute the:
A)
information ratio, which is the standard deviation of the differences between the portfolio and benchmark returns divided by the average of those differences.
B)
Sharpe ratio, which is the standard deviation of the differences between the portfolio and benchmark returns divided into the average of those differences.
C)
information ratio, which is the standard deviation of the differences between the portfolio and benchmark returns divided into the average of those differences.



The information ratio is the measure of active return per unit of active risk. If we let X = (monthly portfolio return − the benchmark return), then the information ratio = (the average of X / the standard deviation of X). It is similar to the Sharpe ratio, which defines the random variable Y as Y = (monthly portfolio return − the risk-free rate). The Sharpe ratio = (the average of Y / the standard deviation of the portfolio return) = the standard deviation of Y if the risk-free rate is constant.

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Janice Barefoot, CFA, has been managing a portfolio for a client who has asked Barefoot to use the Dow Jones Industrial Average (DJIA) as a benchmark. In her first year Barefoot managed the portfolio by choosing 29 of the 30 DJIA stocks. She selected a non-DJIA stock in the same industry as the omitted stock to replace that stock. Compared to the DJIA, Barefoot has placed a higher weight on the financial stocks and a lower weight on the other stocks still in the portfolio. Over that year, the non-DJIA stock in the portfolio had a negative return while the omitted DJIA stock had a positive return. The portfolio managed by Barefoot outperformed the DJIA. Based on this we can say that the return from factor tilts and asset selection were:
A)
negative and positive respectively.
B)
both positive.
C)
positive and negative respectively.



Since the replacement of the asset obviously had a negative effect, the tilting towards financial stocks must have been positive to not only compensate for the loss but produce a portfolio return greater than the DJIA.

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A portfolio with a specific set of factor sensitivities designed to replicate the factor exposures of a benchmark index is called a:
A)

tracking portfolio.
B)

factor portfolio.
C)

arbitrage portfolio.



A tracking portfolio is a portfolio with a specific set of factor sensitivities designed to replicate the factor exposures of a benchmark index. A factor portfolio is a portfolio with a factor sensitivity of one to a particular factor and zero to all other factors. An arbitrage portfolio is a portfolio with factor sensitivities of zero to all factors, positive expected net cash flow, and an initial investment of zero

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A common strategy in bond portfolio management is enhanced indexing by matching primary risk factors. This strategy could be implemented by forming:
A)

a portfolio with factor sensitivities that sum to one.
B)

a portfolio with factor sensitivities equal to that of the index.
C)

a portfolio with asset portfolio weights equal to that of the index.



Enhanced indexing by matching primary risk factors could be implemented by creating a tracking portfolio with the same factor sensitivities as the index but with a different set of bonds. Then any differences in performance between the portfolio and the benchmark index will be the result of bond selection ability and not from different exposures to macroeconomic factors like GDP, inflation, and interest rates.

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Janice Barefoot, CFA, has been managing a portfolio for a client who has asked Barefoot to use the Dow Jones Industrial Average (DJIA) as a benchmark. In her second year, Barefoot used 29 of the 30 DJIA stocks. She selected a non-DJIA stock in the same industry as the omitted DJIA stock to replace that stock. Compared to the DJIA, Barefoot placed a lower weight on the communication stocks and a higher weight on the other stocks still in the portfolio. Over that year, the non-DJIA stock in the portfolio had a positive and higher return than the omitted DJIA stock. The communication stocks had a negative return while all of the other stocks had a positive return. The portfolio managed by Barefoot outperformed the DJIA. Based on this we can say that the return from factor tilts and asset selection were:
A)
both positive.
B)
negative and positive respectively.
C)
positive and negative respectively.



Since the communications stocks had a negative return while all the other stocks had a positive return, Barefoot’s underweighting of those stocks produced a positive tilt return. Since the asset chosen to replace the DJIA stock outperformed the omitted stock, the asset selection return was positive.

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A portfolio manager uses a two-factor model to manage her portfolio. The two factors are confidence risk and time-horizon risk. If she wants to bet on an unexpected increase in the confidence risk factor (which has a positive risk premium), but hedge away her exposure to time-horizon risk (which has a negative risk premium), she should create a portfolio with a sensitivity of:
A)

1.0 to the confidence risk factor and 0.0 to the time-horizon factor.
B)

1.0 to the confidence risk factor and -1.0 to the time-horizon factor.
C)

−1.0 to the confidence risk factor and 1.0 to the time-horizon factor.



She wants to create a confidence risk factor portfolio, which has a sensitivity of 1.0 to the confidence risk factor and 0.0 to the time horizon factor. Because the risk premium on the confidence risk factor is positive, an unexpected increase in this factor will increase the returns on her portfolio. The exposure to the time-horizon risk factor has been hedged away, because the sensitivity to that factor is zero.

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A portfolio with a factor sensitivity of one to a particular factor in a multi-factor model and zero to all other factors is called a(n):
A)

tracking portfolio.
B)

factor portfolio.
C)

arbitrage portfolio.



A factor portfolio is a portfolio with a factor sensitivity of one to a particular factor and zero to all other factors. An arbitrage portfolio is a portfolio with factor sensitivities of zero to all factors, positive expected net cash flow, and an initial investment of zero. A tracking portfolio is a portfolio with a specific set of factor sensitivities designed to replicate the factor exposures of a benchmark index.

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Jose Morales has been investing for years, mostly using index funds. But because he is not satisfied with his returns, he decides to meet with Bill Smale, a financial adviser with Big Gains Asset Management.Morales lays out his concerns about active management:
  • “Mutual funds average returns below their benchmarks.”
  • “All the buying and selling makes for less-efficient markets.”
  • “Expenses are higher with active management.”
  • “Analyst forecasts are often wrong.”

In an effort to win Morales’ business, Smale explains the benefits of active management, starting with the fact that market efficiency is a prime concern of active managers because efficient markets make active management possible. He then explains that active management allows for better protection against systematic risk, and that Big Gains uses multifactor models to adjust investment strategies to account for economic changes. Lastly, Smale tells Morales how Big Gains Asset Management has pledged never to reveal clients’ personal information to third parties.
Morales seems willing to listen, so Smale explains Big Gains’ management strategy, which involves a modified version of the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) using the Dow Jones Total Market Index. He raves about this valuation model, citing its ability to project future alphas, determine true market betas of individual stocks, create an accurate picture of the market portfolio, and provide an alternative for calculated covariances in the charting of the Markowitz Efficient Frontier.
After an hour of verbal sparring with Smale, Morales is not yet convinced of the wisdom of active management. He turns to Tobin Capital, calling Susan Worthan, a college friend who works as an analyst in the equity department. Tobin Capital uses the arbitrage pricing theory (APT) to value stocks. Worthan explains that APT offers several benefits relative to the CAPM, most notably its dependence on fewer and less restrictive assumptions.
After listening to Worthan’s explanation of the APT, Morales asked her how the theory dealt with mispriced stocks, drawing a table with the following data to illustrate his question:

Stock

Current PriceEst. Price in 1 YearCorrelation with S&P 500Standard Deviation of ReturnsBeta
Xavier Flocking$45$510.5717%1.68
Yaris Yarn$6$6.750.407%1.21
Zimmer Autos$167$1810.8910.5%0.34


After seeing Morales’ stock example, Worthan tells him that he still does not understand APT and tries to explain how the theory deals with mispriced stocks. Which of the following statements is most accurate? Under APT:
A)
any mispricings will be immediately rectified.
B)
mispricings cannot occur, and there is no arbitrage opportunity.
C)
the calculation of unsystematic risk is so accurate that mispricings are rare.



Arbitrage pricing theory holds that any arbitrage opportunities will be exploited immediately, making the mispricing disappear. (Study Session 18, LOS 60.l)

Which of the following is least likely an assumption of the market model?
A)
The expected value of the error term is zero.
B)
Unsystematic risk can be diversified away.
C)
The firm-specific surprises are uncorrelated across assets.



The assumption that unsystematic risk can be diversified away is an assumption of the arbitrage pricing theory. (Study Session 18, LOS 60.g)

Smale best makes his point about the superiority of active management with his mention of:
A)
multifactor models.
B)
systematic risk.
C)
market efficiency.



Systematic risk cannot be diversified away, and there is no dependable evidence that active management can help control it. Active managers attempt to capitalize on inefficiencies in the market, and a truly efficient market would eliminate the need for active management. However, multifactor models are a useful tool for active managers, and a high-quality model may indeed represent a competitive advantage over a passive manager. (Study Session 18, LOS 60.j)

Which assumption is required by both the CAPM and the APT?
A)
There are no transaction costs.
B)
All investors have the same return expectations.
C)
Asset prices are not discounted for unsystematic risk.



The assumptions that all investors have the same expectations and that there are no transaction costs are specific to CAPM, not APT. However, both models assume that unsystematic risk can be diversified away, and has a risk premium of zero. (Study Session 18, LOS 60.n)

Which of Morales’ arguments against active management is least accurate?
A)
“Mutual funds average returns below their benchmarks.”
B)
“Expenses are higher with active management.”
C)
“All the buying and selling makes for less-efficient markets.”



When little money is actively managed, asset prices begin to deviate from fair values. Active management exploits inefficiencies and drives prices back toward equilibrium. Both remaining arguments are valid. (Study Session 18, LOS 60.m)

Assuming Morales’ numbers are correct, portfolio allocation of 65% of one stock and 35% of a second would allow arbitrage profits to be closest to:
A)
0.29%.
B)
0.90%.
C)
0%.



A portfolio containing 65% Xavier Flocking and 35% Zimmer Auto would have a weighted average beta of (65% × 1.68) + (35% × 0.34) = 1.21, which is the same as the beta of Yaris Yarn. The weighted average return of the combined portfolio is 11.6%, versus a 12.5% return for Yaris Yarn. Buying Yaris Yarn and selling the Xavier/Zimmer portfolio would earn an estimated 0.9% without investing any capital or taking on any systematic risk. (Study Session 18, LOS 60.n)

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