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yeah, i reworked the ingrams ips problem yesterday. in that case though, everything was done pre-tax. and inflation was added at the end. AFTER you got the pretax number, no?

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this was the ingrams

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there is an example in schweser videos - I think I got it now
first - they talk about long term return requirements - they use pmt adjusted for next years inflation ( expected to stay stable for the whole period)
second when asked about NEXT year return, they dont adjust for inflation

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I would do before.
also when you have a net outflow from portfolio, and we have the inflation rate, do we always input the PMT as today cashflow*(1+inflation)?

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add inflation before you perform the return / 1-T calculation.

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