yeah, i reworked the ingrams ips problem yesterday. in that case though, everything was done pre-tax. and inflation was added at the end. AFTER you got the pretax number, no?
there is an example in schweser videos - I think I got it now
first - they talk about long term return requirements - they use pmt adjusted for next years inflation ( expected to stay stable for the whole period)
second when asked about NEXT year return, they dont adjust for inflation
I would do before.
also when you have a net outflow from portfolio, and we have the inflation rate, do we always input the PMT as today cashflow*(1+inflation)?