lenny_chen

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mayanfang1

答案和详解如下：

Q8. According to CFA Institute Standards of Professional Conduct, when a client asks her portfolio manager to change the current investment strategy of the client’s portfolio, the manager should:

A)   explain the implications of the new strategy after the member manager implements the strategy.

B)   obey the client's request without question.

C)   examine whether the strategy is appropriate for the client and explain the implications of the new strategy before implementing the strategy.

Correct answer is C)         

According to Standard III(C), Suitability, the member manager must determine that an investment is suitable given the client’s objectives/constraints and within the context of the client’s total portfolio. In this case, the member manager must examine the new strategy to see if it is appropriate for the client, even if the client asked for the change. The member should also explain the implications of the strategy to avoid any misrepresentations that may result from omitting details.

Q9. Bob Hatfield, CFA, has his own money management firm with two clients. The accounts of the two clients are equal in value. Hatfield has been trading on the clients’ behalf with a single brokerage firm for several years. Because of his many years of business, the brokerage firm occasionally gives Hatfield shares in an initial public offering (IPO) to sell to his clients. Hatfield has a policy of allocating the IPO shares equally between the portfolios of the two clients. This policy is:

A)   congruent with Standard III(C), Suitability.

B)   a violation of Standard III(C), Suitability.

C)   a violation of Standard III(B), Fair Dealing.

Correct answer is B)

According to Standard III(C), the analyst must consider the appropriateness and suitability of an investment recommendation for each portfolio or client. Having a fixed policy of adding investments to portfolios without evaluating their suitability is a violation of Standard III(C). The action does not violate Standard III(B)

Q10. Bob Hatfield, CFA, has his own money management firm with two clients. The accounts of the two clients are equal in value. One of the clients gets married and the assets of the new spouse and the client are combined. With the larger portfolio of the now married client, Hatfield determines that they can assume a higher level of risk and begins a change in the policy concerning that portfolio. Which of the following would violate Standard III(C), Suitability?

A)   Assess the return objectives of the newly married client and his spouse.

B)   Implement a similar policy for the other client who did not just get married.

C)   Assess the time horizon of the newly married client and his spouse.

Correct answer is B)

According to Standard III(C), Suitability, the analyst must assess the time horizon, return objectives, tax considerations, and liquidity needs of a client before changing an investment policy. The analyst must notify the client of the new policy. Implementing the policy for the other client may be a violation of the Standard unless that client’s needs are totally reassessed and determined to be identical to the needs of the newly married client.