After Tax Equity Reversion example, understand, price

fishmarket

I don't get it, in the Douglas Manor Apartments example (Reading 47) when calculating the After Tax Equity Reversion, Depreciation is deducted twice. Firstly, it is deducted from Purchase price then it deducted from gain on the sale. Why is this so? There is no explantion as to why this was done.

Please help understand the logic here!

ppls

Here is how I would like to think about it.

In the douglas example, you have an asset at a book value of

459,404

but you are able to sell it in the market for a net of 723,469

that is a 264,065 gain

but wait, in reality 198,469 of it is true gain (723,469-525000, sales price-orginal price)

the rest appears to be a gain cause you depreciated more than you should have, in theory you should not have depricated at all cause you sold it for more than original value, never the less accounting rules required that you depreciate...

that extra depreciation saved you tax in the past =dep(t)
so you should pay it back

in addition, you should pay a higher tax rate than the regural rate, i would like to think of it as conpensation to the gov because you are paying them taxes later than you should have...

so the 65596 which should have never depreciated (again in theory, accounting requires that it is), it must be taxes at a higher rate than the 198469

i hope this helps
sorry if messy, i always log in via phone

President1988

also to more directly answer question

the first time accumlated dep was subtracted so we can get book value, nothing more

now that we have that book value of 459404

we did 723469 - 459404 = 264065 to get the gain on sale

now we subtract the dep out of it because it has to be treated in a diff way like i said in the previous post

then we are subtracting each "type of gain" after multiplying it by the tax rate applicable to that type of gain

------------------

has the sale price been


509404

your gain is 509404-459404=50000
since that 50,000 is the than the dep, it is all recapture dep

and you pay tax of (509404-459404)*0.25

nothing to be paid in the 0.2 bracket, because no capital gain

-------------------

has the sale price been 459404

you pay nothing in taxes

------------------

so this covers all 3 possible events

wxs1986

actually these is one condition i did not cover, and it does not seem that you are required to know it

if your sale price is bellow BV, ie

sales price of 409404

you have a loss of 549404-4094-4=50000

i hope someone with more accounting know how can tell us how the authorities would treat that.

would say allow you to pay=50000*0.2 less in taxes assuming your taxes from opparations are greater than this?

would they give you 50000*0.2 in cash no mater what you other taxes are?

would they allow you to deduct it from your taxes in future years ?

SpyAli

Now I get it!!?! Thanks guys!