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Maybe I'm retarded for over-thinking this or just sleep deprived. Have a question about an example in the book re: Ethics.
It's example 3, page 25:
In summary, Finance Person K.W. advertises 10 yr track record of their firm in marketing materials. K.W. learns the track record has been compiled improperly and overstates returns (includes accounts which have since left the company, etc.). K.W. supervisors insist they use the incorrect data and continue to market. If K.W. continues to use the mis-stated material they are in violate of Standard I (A) Law.
My question is: Why is this a violation of Standard I (A) Law and not Standard I (C) Misrepresentation ?
It says nothing about the law. I assume it's illegal in the US or the EU, but this isn't illegal in many countries where securities laws are not fully developed. I would think this would be misrepresentation not a violation of the law... |
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