Ethics Question - Please answer and I will stop studying studying

Muddahudda

I alway get this confused and want to make sure I have this right....

If a client offers you additional compensation for achieving some set results each....you notify in writing to the employer...however, dont have to get approval.

If you work at a firm as PM and want to take on additional independent clients while still working at your current firmm, you MUST receive written approval from all parties involved.

correct?

justin88

if you receive say a aspen condo apartment for a week for delivering good perf. for cleint A, you need written approval from employer, but do you have to disclose to other clients as well?

PalacioHill

A few pages after my quote, there is a practice problem where the correct answer requires written consent from employer.

Crazy, inconsistent CFAI.

liangfeng

boston21 Wrote:
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> i think you need the written permission if they
> say "you can use my wife for a few nights if you
> get my portfolio a 10% return next year"
>
> but if they just give you something, you just
> disclose it

I dont think I agree. We need to disclose the incentive clearly.

The pharase 'Few nights' is not ok. We need a real number here.

oneboy

N.VanCandidate Wrote:
-------------------------------------------------------
> ok lets all agree that:
> 1. must get written approval for both cases
> 2. a bit ambiguous with the context - that never
> happens on CFAI exam as we all know so no worries
> there ;)
> 3. BlueCollar can now stop studying
>
> good luck all
>
> NVC

Couldn't agree more on #2 above.
Never ambiguous..never...always clear.

skycfa

Yes I agree. The most important point being #3.

Good luck to you too

cityboy

ok lets all agree that:
1. must get written approval for both cases
2. a bit ambiguous with the context - that never happens on CFAI exam as we all know so no worries there ;)
3. BlueCollar can now stop studying

good luck all

NVC

ohai

I'm not disagreeing with that, NVC.

Accepting additional comp on its own does not imply that it's a violation. The OP's scenario is not a violation on its own.

By your logic it's a violation to make a trade. Why? Because the trader potentially used insider info. Or he traded for his account before his client's. Or he only bought a stick for a specific client when it was suitable for all. Context context.

bkballa

You CAN accept the additional comp provided you disclose it to your employer and receive written permission.

Part of the reason you need written permission is that if there is an additional comp agreement your supervisor must ensure you are not violating both objectivity and fair dealing statutes by showing bias to one client in regard to trade/IPO allocations and the like.

nannan66

Straight out of the CODE:

"Do not offer, solicit, or accept any compensation that could compromise independence or objectivity"