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6#
发表于 2011-7-13 16:05
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I understand your question here and will try to explain my thinking on it:
Take your 2 scenarios
1) You don't take any financing. Say that your operating cycle (A/R and Inv days) is 120 days and A/P days are 30....if you continue making payments at the same rate as you take on A/P, your A/P days will stay at 30, so your net operating/cash conversion cycle will be 90 days.
2) You finance the entire chunk of A/P. Your operating cycle stays at 120, but now you have completely retired all your A/P with the bank debt. The retiring of A/P is still a CFO outflow. Since you have no A/P anymore, your A/P days are 0 and your cash conversion cycle shoots up because its now 120 - 0 = 120 days.
By financing A/P, you take a take a hit to CFO at the time of refinance, but that is the extent of any CFO activity. Any subsequent paydown goes toward repaying the bank loan (CFF).
Sorry, this probably had nothing to do with what you were asking about.
anish Wrote:
why do they say that you 'manage the timing
> of your CFO this way'
> Say if I didn't take the financing, I pay payables
> out of my CFO. I took the financing, I am still
> paying payables out of my CFO. I increase CFF in
> first quarter by taking financing and reduce CFF
> later by paying back the financing. How did I
> manage the timing of CFO?
Edited 1 time(s). Last edit at Wednesday, May 18, 2011 at 03:15PM by thisisbrianly. |
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