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发表于 2011-7-13 16:08
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The reading is basically a theoretical framework, and as such, you can take a few liberties with understanding it. Here's my take:
1. Start from a total wealth perspective. Total wealth = financial wealth + human capital (PV of future earnings)
2. Think of your career as a continuum, whereby your goal is to convert human capital (or latent earnings potential) into financial capital. Over time your total wealth picture is less dependent on human (potential capital) and more on tangible/real/financial capital.
3. Human capital, and the income derived from it functions GENERALLY like a fixed income instrument, you receive regular distributions that IN GENERAL have low volatility. Year-over-year, human capital will perhaps increase in line with inflation and maybe bumps in pay based on promotions or larger bonuses. For most people, career income is more predictable than equity market returns...it functions more like a fixed income instrument than an equity instrument.
4. Think of the discount rate that you use to derive the PV of human capital as similar to a WACC calculation. The weighted average would be based on the percentage of your total wealth derived from human capital and financial capital. For the purposes of discounting, human capital should have a smaller required return than risky capital (or equity-like) capital. Early on in your career, you probably haven't converted a lot of your latent potential into financial (riskier) capital, so your discount rate (WACC) would be dominated by the human capital impact to your total wealth. Intuitively, this makes sense - since in general human capital is less volatile, and the required rate of return is lower, your discount rate is lower. A lower discount rate generates a higher present value -- insurance is a safety-net against that PV
5. Insurance is perfectly negatively correlated with human capital. If you die, you lose 100% of your future earnings - the PV of your future earnings potential. An appropriately purchased insurance policy would yield a distribution equal to exactly the same value of the PV lost ... perfectly negatively correlated.
CONCEPTUALLY, one wrinkle has to do with the nature of your work. Perhaps you manage a hedge fund. Your income (human capital) has a distinct equity-like component to it. In this case, as you convert human capital into financial capital, you need to be mindful that you have an implicit risky asset allocation based on the nature of your work; therefore, you should try to diversify your financial asset allocation into less risky assets.
If I wanted to over think this, I could poke holes in what I've written above (i.e. the WACC argument), but directionally I think it encapsulates the intention of the reading. |
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