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Effect of impairement on Taxes

Schweser Book 3, Page 185:
Impairment reduces the carrying value of an asset on the balance sheet and is recognized as a loss in the income statement.

a few line down, it is mentioned:

There are no tax savings from an impairment on an asset value, until the asset is sold or disposed off.

Question:
If the impairment is recognized as a loss on the income statement, why would there be no tax savings? Wouldn't the pretax earnings be less if it is recognized as loss?

It recorded as a loss after the net income not before calculating operating profits I believe

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