Transaction Exposure, an exchange rate risk exchange, 2011

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When a US exporter have a transaction exposure, does it mean that its counter-party have no transaction exposure?



Edited 1 time(s). Last edit at Thursday, March 31, 2011 at 10:44PM by deriv108.

thommo77

idreesz Wrote:
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> Well, it all depends on where the exchange rate
> ends.

Now I got it.

Thank you all.

oneboy

deriv108 Wrote:
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> "a contract expecting to receive a 100$ on his
> books, at the contracted rate of 0.8$/PIF."
>
> Does it mean that the importer has to pay 100$, or
> pay 125PIF but at a rate of 0.8$/PIF, or pay in
> PIF worth 100$?
>
> If yes, the exporter will receive 100$ or
> 111PIF=111PIF*.9$/PIF=100$. In USD, the exporter
> gets his 100$. It seems no exchange risk.

Over here since, the US exporter gets his $100 he faces no exchange rate risk. However the importer faces the risk.

In other words, the US exporter has no exposure at all IF he is getting the money in dollars



Edited 1 time(s). Last edit at Friday, April 1, 2011 at 01:49AM by idreesz.

former

deriv108 Wrote:
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> When a US exporter have a transaction exposure,
> does it mean that its counter-party have no
> transaction exposure?

Well, it all depends on where the exchange rate ends.

ohai

no - it is set up as a signature.

CP

Unforseen

CP do you type in the CP at the end of all of your messages? I have wondered that for years

bkballa

US exporter exported his goods to another country.
He expects to be paid with a foreign currency.
expects say 100$ in today's exchange rates of 1.5 PIF/$. So receiver of goods would spend 150 PIF.

Now say PIF instead becomes 1.2 PIF/$ (PIF appreciated, $ depreciated). To pay the US Exporter 100$ now receiver of goods needs to spend only 120 PIF. So the Receiver (Counterparty) benefits because the US$ depreciated/PIF appreciated.

CP