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What's the plain logic behind the inverse relationship between the bond price and the yield?
Say if the call option increases the price of a bond because it's more attractive for a bond buyer due to the safety the option offers, the the graphical inverse relation states that the yield will hence go down. But why does the yield have to go down in a first place?
If there is a high priced bond that yield low and the other cheaper bond that pays higher yield, shouldn't I be better off with the lower priced bond because I get compensated by the higher streams of profit the yield bring?
After all, in the end you are being refunded back for the same bond price that came out of your pocket from the start. So why not pay cheap and get more out of a bond?
Or if you say the higher priced bond pays higher priced coupons stream relative to the cheaper priced bond, aren't the lump sum rewards be the same in the end?
your help is appreciated. |
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