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L3 - Implementation shortfall

 Can someone explain this?


If the market return was 1.2% over the time period of trading, the risk-free rate was 0.1%, the stock beta was 1.3, and the shortfall implementation cost is 0.48% for trading in the stock, then what is the shortfall implementation cost to which the manager should be held accountable?

A)-1.07%.
B)1.07%.
C)-1.08%.

The correct answer was C) -1.08%.

The realized profit and loss, delay costs, and missed trade opportunity cost of the implementation shortfall are all affected by market movements that the manager should not be held accountable for. The implementation shortfall should be adjusted for market-wide movements, resulting in the a market-adjusted implementation shortfall. Over a few days, the alpha term is assumed to be zero, so no adjustment for the risk-free rate is necessary. If the market return was 1.2% over the time period of this trading and the beta was 1.3 for the stock, then the expected return for it would be 1.2% ×1.3 = 1.56%. Subtracting this from the 0.48% results in a market-adjusted implementation shortfall of 0.48% - 1.56% = -1.08%.

     Definitely unreasonable, ambiguous and irrational!!!根本没有道理和逻辑的题,简直是垃圾,给出的解释也是没有道理的,不值得一看。

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 解释的没有问题啊。。。

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看不懂的飘过………………

 

总觉得怪怪的,又不知道哪里怪

[此贴子已经被作者于2010-6-3 21:19:37编辑过]

行到水穷处,坐看云起时。 金融市场翻江倒海,旮旯角落韬光养晦。

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 the answer is correct. manager should be held account for--- >adjust the market effect--- >market adjusted implementation shortfall.

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看这题的意思,莫非the shortfall implementation cost to which the manager should be held accountable就是MAIS?学到了...

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 it is testing reading comprehension

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     看来对这道题争议的关键不是什么shortfall implementation cost ,而是怎样计算notional/paper portfolio的回报率。为什么?关键是题干中的beta怎么解释?是CAPM中的beta,还是市场模型market model中的beta。如果是CAPM中的BETA,那么portfolio's expected return=RF+BETA*(RM-RF)=0.1%+1.3*(1.2%-0.1%)=1.53%。如果BETA是MARKET MODEL中的BETA,那么portfolio's expected return=BETA*RM=1.3*1.2%=1.56%。显然,题干中隐含的BETA是指MARKET MODEL而非CAPM中的BETA,在给出了RISK FREE RATE的情况下,很容易让人混淆,足见这道题的狡猾。

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Notes上有这个公式, notes上是说E(R) = alfa + beta *E(Rm), 其中alfa的expected value = 0 (是不是将alfa看成error term? 这个没明白,死记了)。

这道题完全就是按照这个来做的。

不知道考试会不会这样出。。。。

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[求助]关于EAR,BEY,YTM的换算公式

“market-adjusted implementation shortfall ”

书上有这个定义 么?

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