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- 2011-7-11
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9#
发表于 2011-7-11 18:36
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I understand your curiosity...no worries!
Well, I think it has to do with the EFFECTIVE cost....there's no reason why a company should be valued (valuation through FCFF uses WACC to discount the cash flows), or NPV analysis (which the cash flows are discounted by WACC), without looking at the EFFECTIVE cost..
The company does pay $1 million dollars in interest (coupon) payments, yes, BUT it effectively only costs them $1 million (1-tc) because of the savings they receive from the tax shield provided by the government...
Look into Optimal Capital Structure literature by Modigliani & Miller...Without the financial distress (possiblity of default), the company will maximize it's value by using 100% debt because of the Debt Tax Shield (tax savings from debt)....but when you add the realistic issue of debt increasing the financial distress, you need to raise equity....
Overall, debt is the cheaper method of raising cash by a firm because of the tax savings BUT up to a certain point...the optimal cap. structure, well obviously hard to gauge...
I hope this helps, I've taken many courses on corporate finance and at high levels...I hope I retained SOME of it... haha...please let me know if you still have any issues.. |
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