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2011 Mock Question 46

I am wondering why the answer to this should not be C. I feel C is more valid than B.

Currency risk can be minimized diversifying across markets, not eliminated.

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But C says that "correlations between equity and currency markets are so low that overall currency risk is minimal" - which is not true for all markets. I feel C is also a problem.

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B is the worst answer.

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So Paraguay - do you feel C could be an answer - not sure if I got you?

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Seems pretty straight forward to me. You CANNOT eliminate currency risk via diversification - you must use forwards for that. Thus, the fact that he says you can ELIMINATE currency risk via diversification is blatantly wrong.

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But is it not blatantly wrong to assume that "correlations between equity and currency markets are so low that overall currency risk is minimal"?

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manishsd Wrote:
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> But is it not blatantly wrong to assume that
> "correlations between equity and currency markets
> are so low that overall currency risk is minimal"?

Not really, have you traded EU/US/JPY risk convergence in the last 3 years?

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Nope - sorry!!

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manishsd Wrote:
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> Nope - sorry!!

Developed market equities have had a very high inverse correlation. Long term this has held well.

Developing have positive correlation between equities and currency.

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