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Colonial Capital leans heavily on the capital asset pricing model (CAPM) in its investment-making decisions, but the company’s analysts find it difficult to use. In an effort to make the calculations easier, Colonial has modified the CAPM to use the S&P 1500 SuperComposite Index as a benchmark.
Colonial recently hired high-powered money manager Marjorie Kemp away from a rival company in an effort to boost its lagging returns. Kemp understands the appeal of the CAPM but likes to use multiple valuation methods for the purposes of comparison.
In her first act as chief investment officer of Colonial, Kemp sent a memo to all portfolio managers instructing them to start using alternative methods for valuing assets. She opened by touting the benefits of other forms of asset valuation.
  • “The CAPM requires a lot of unrealistic assumptions. Arbitrage Pricing Theory’s (APT) assumptions are far less restrictive.”
  • “A major benefit of multifactor models relative to the CAPM is their ability to be effectively tested using real-life data.”
  • “Under APT, risk is easier to calculate than is the case with the CAPM, for which beta must be estimated based on unobservable returns.”
  • “Neither multifactor models nor APT require an estimation of the market risk premium.”

Kemp then called a meeting of Colonial’s analysts to discuss asset-valuation strategies. The debate grew quite spirited.
A longtime Colonial analyst named Smathers said the company had experimented with multifactor models years earlier and could not come up with a model that satisfied everyone. He then proposed creating a number of multifactor models for different sectors. The responses were as follows:
  • Florio said he didn’t like APT because it did not indicate what the risk factors were.
  • Garcia said he liked APT because it acknowledged that arbitrage opportunities occasionally exist.
  • Inge said he disliked APT because it did not allow analysts to consider the market portfolio.

After about 30 minutes, Kemp realized nothing productive would occur, so she set everyone to work analyzing a valuation model. She wrote the following equation on a blackboard:
Expected stock return = expected S&P 1500 Index return / 2 + capacity utilization / 15 + 1.5 × GDP growth − 2 × inflation
Which factors, taken in combination, would create the best multifactor model for utility stocks?
A)
Projected change in energy prices, interest rate term structure, estimated GDP growth, projected market return.
B)
Projected winter low temperature, projected change in energy prices, projected change in inflation, projected market return.
C)
Projected winter low temperature, interest rate term structure, housing starts, price/earnings factor.



Without knowing the accuracy of the factor sensitivities or actually looking at the numbers generated by the equation, we can only assess the value of a multifactor model by considering whether the individual factors are relevant. Winter low temperatures and energy prices are particularly relevant to utilities, the first on the revenue side, and the second on the cost side. Because utilities tend to be heavily leveraged, interest rates affect them. Inflation rates are relevant for most companies, as are price/earnings ratios. Housing starts are relevant for utilities, as houses are larger than apartments and more expensive to heat and cool. However, utilities are considered diversifiers, and their returns are less correlated to those of the broader market than are the returns of stocks in other sectors. The sector is also less correlated to economic growth than most. As such, models that consider GDP growth or market returns are probably of less value than the one model that considers neither.

Which statement represents Kemp’s weakest argument?
A)
“Under APT, risk is easier to calculate than is the case with the CAPM, for which beta must be estimated based on unobservable returns.”
B)
“The CAPM requires a lot of unrealistic assumptions. APT’s assumptions are far less restrictive.”
C)
“Neither multifactor models nor APT require an estimation of the market risk premium.”



It is debatable whether risk is easier to calculate under APT. True, the beta of the unobservable market portfolio is not needed, but the risk factors required for the APT equation are not provided. The analyst must select them. As such, the statement about the ease of calculating risk is open for interpretation. Both remaining statements are factually accurate, with no interpretation required.

Kemp’s equation is closest to:
A)
arbitrage pricing theory.
B)
a microeconomic multifactor model.
C)
a macroeconomic multifactor model.



The arbitrage pricing theory and the capital asset pricing model equations use the risk-free return, so Kemp’s equation is not an APT. That leaves factor models. The market return is technically neither a macroeconomic or microeconomic variable, but it can be used with multifactor models. Since the other three variables represent macro factors, the equation is closest to a macroeconomic multifactor model.

Which analyst made the most sense?
A)
Garcia.
B)
Inge.
C)
Florio.



Florio’s statement about risk factors is correct, and reflects a weakness in APT. Garcia’s statement is incorrect, because one of the assumptions inherent in the APT is that arbitrage opportunities do not exist. Inge is mistaken because, while APT does not require the use of the market portfolio, an analyst can certainly use the market portfolio as a factor if desired.

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The Adams portfolio contains 35% Khallin Equipment stock and 65% Giant Semiconductor stock. Analyst Joe Karroll estimates that 40% of Khallin’s return variance is determined by cost trends and 60% is determined by purchasing trends. Karroll also estimates that Giant’s return variance is 75% determined by cost trends and 25 percent determined by purchasing trends. Assuming an estimated return of 7% for Khallin and 16% for Giant and a cost factor of –0.07 and a purchasing factor of 0.0325, the Adams portfolio’s expected return is closest to:
A)
12.9%.
B)
8.0%.
C)
9.7%.



When we have data points for the macroeconomic model, we use the model to calculate expected returns, rather than falling back on the estimated returns of the individual stocks. To calculate portfolio returns using the macroeconomic models, we simply use the weighted average of the models. Here are the models:
Return-Khallin = 0.07 + (0.4 × -0.07) + (0.6 × 0.0325)
Return-Giant = 0.16 + (0.75 × -0.07) + (0.25 × 0.0325)


Assuming a 35% weighting for Khallin stock and a 65% weighting for Giant, the portfolio return = 0.129 + (0.628 × -0.07) + (0.373 × 0.0325) = 12.9% - 4.4% + 1.2% = 9.7%.

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Mary Carruthers has created the following macroeconomic model for stock in Magma Metro Systems and Clampett Pharmaceuticals:
  • R-Magma = 12% + (6.3 × GDP growth) + (0.056 × population growth) + error.
  • R-Clampett = 18% + (1.2 × GDP growth) – (0.231 × population growth) + error.

The expected return for a portfolio containing 65% Magma Metro Systems and 35% Clampett Pharmaceuticals is closest to:
A)
14%.
B)
16%.
C)
13%.



Given no information about GDP and population growth, we cannot calculate returns using the detailed model. As such, we fall back on the traditional assumption that the factors and random error in a macroeconomic model are expected to equal zero. As such, the expected return for the portfolio is the weighted average of the intercepts: 65% × 12% = 7.8% and 35% × 18% = 6.3% thus 7.8% + 6.3% = 14.1%.

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Which of the following statements about multifactor models is CORRECT?
A)
The multifactor model is a cross-sectional equilibrium pricing model that explains variation across assets.
B)
The intercept term in a macroeconomic factor model is the risk-free rate.
C)
The multifactor model is a time-series regression that explains variation in one asset.



The multifactor model is a time-series regression that explains variation in one asset. APT is a cross-sectional equilibrium pricing model that explains variation across assets. The intercept term in a macroeconomic factor model is the asset's expected return.

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Given a three-factor arbitrage pricing theory APT model, what is the expected return on the Freedom Fund?
  • The factor risk premiums to factors 1, 2, and 3 are 10%, 7% and 6%, respectively.
  • The Freedom Fund has sensitivities to the factors 1, 2, and 3 of 1.0, 2.0 and 0.0, respectively.
  • The risk-free rate is 6.0%.
A)
30.0%.
B)
33.0%.
C)
24.0%.



The expected return on the Freedom Fund is 6% + (10.0%)(1.0) + (7.0%)(2.0) + (6.0%)(0.0) = 30.0%.

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Jennifer Watkins, CFA, is a portfolio manager at Q-Metrics. She has derived a 2-factor arbitrage pricing theory (APT) model of expected returns she intends to use in her portfolio management strategies. The two-factor APT equation, in which the two factors are confidence risk and industrial production, is:

E(RP) = RT-bill + 0.06βp,CONF + 0.09βp,PROD


Watkins determines the sensitivity to each of the two factors for three diversified portfolios as well as for her benchmark, the Wilshire 5000. The results of her analysis are shown in the table below.
PortfolioSensitivity to Conf. Risk Factor Sensitivity to Indust. Prod. Factor
J1.501.00
K0.801.20
L1.002.00
Wilshire 50001.001.50

βp,CONF: a market confidence factor
βp,PROD: industrial production factor

RT-bill: the Treasury bill rate of return, assumed equal to 4%.

Watkins compares her data and results to that of a colleague who uses the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) to analyze the same portfolios. She determines that her analysis is more appropriate for the given portfolios.
What is the expected return on Portfolio K according to the APT equation?
A)

19.6%.
B)

15.6%.
C)

22.0%.



The β's in the APT equation are the factor sensitivities. The expected return on portfolio K is E(RK) = 0.04 + 0.06(0.80) + 0.09(1.20) = 19.6%.


Which of the following would be a valid reason for concluding that the APT analysis of Watkins is more appropriate than the CAPM analysis of her colleague?
A)
Investors have quadratic utility functions.
B)
Investors can borrow and lend at the risk-free rate.
C)
The APT model is less restrictive than the CAPM.



The true market portfolio contains all securities. The CAPM is a more restrictive model and requires that such a portfolio be mean/variance efficient while the APT does not. The Wilshire 5000 is a very diversified portfolio, but it does not contain all securities.

Which of the following is least likely one of the three equations needed to solve for the Industrial Production factor portfolio combination of J, K and L?
A)

1.50wJ + 0.80wK + 1.00wL = 0.
B)

wJ + wK + wL = 1.
C)

1.50wJ + 1.20wK + 2.00wL = 0.



A factor portfolio has a sensitivity of one to one factor and a sensitivity of zero for all other factors (in this case, a pure bet on industrial production). We need to create a factor portfolio (a combination of portfolios J, K and L) that has a factor sensitivity of zero to the confidence risk factor and a sensitivity of one to the industrial production factor. The three simultaneous equations to solve are:
Equation 1: wJ + wK + wL = 1 (portfolio weights sum to 1)
Equation 2: 1.50wJ + 0.80wK + 1.00wL = 0 (confidence risk portfolio sensitivity equals 0)
Equation 3: 1.00wJ + 1.20wK + 2.00wL = 1 (production portfolio sensitivity equals 1)

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Carrie Marcel, CFA, has long used the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) as an investment tool. Marcel has recently begun to appreciate the advantages of arbitrage pricing theory (APT). She used reliable techniques and data to create the following two-factor APT equation:

E(RP) = 6.0% + 12.0%βp,ΔGDP – 3.0%βp,ΔINF

Where ΔGDP is the change in GDP and ΔINF is the change in inflation. She then determines the sensitivities to the factors of three diversified portfolios that are available for investment as well as a benchmark index:

Portfolio

Sensitivity to ΔGDP

Sensitivity to ΔINF

Q

2.00

0.75

R

1.25

0.50

S

1.50

0.25

Benchmark Index

1.80

1.00

Marcel is investigating several strategies. She decides to determine how to create a portfolio from Q, R, and S that only has an exposure to ΔGDP. She also wishes to create a portfolio out of Q, R, and S that can replicate the benchmark. Marcel also believes that a hedge fund, which is composed of long and short positions, could be created with a portfolio that is equally weighted in Q, R, S and the benchmark index. The hedge fund would produce a return in excess of the risk-free return but would not have any risk.

Which of the following statements least likely describes characteristics of the APT and the CAPM?
A)
The APT is more flexible than the CAPM because it allows for multiple factors.
B)
Both models assume firm-specific risk can be diversified away.
C)
Both models require the ability to invest in the market portfolio.



The CAPM can be thought of as a subset of the APT, multifactor model. Therefore, fewer assumptions are needed for the APT model than the CAPM. Although it could be included as a factor, the APT does not require an investment in the market portfolio. APT can be thought of as a k factor model, while the CAPM is based on the risk-free asset and the market portfolio.

What is the APT expected return on a factor portfolio exposed only to ΔGDP?
A)
18.0%.
B)
12.0%.
C)
15.0%.



A factor portfolio is a portfolio with a factor sensitivity of one to a particular factor and zero to all other factors. The expected return on a “factor 1” portfolio is E(RR) = 6.0% + 12.0% (1.00) − 3.0%(0.00) = 18.0%.

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Given a three-factor arbitrage pricing theory (APT) model, what is the expected return on the Premium Dividend Yield Fund?
  • The factor risk premiums to factors 1, 2 and 3 are 8%, 12% and 5%, respectively.
  • The fund has sensitivities to the factors 1, 2, and 3 of 2.0, 1.0 and 1.0, respectively.
  • The risk-free rate is 3.0%.
A)

33.0%.
B)

50.0%.
C)

36.0%.



The expected return on the Premium Dividend Yield Fund is 3% + (8.0%)(2.0) + (12.0%)(1.0) + (5.0%)(1.0) = 36.0%.

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Which of the following assumptions is NOT necessary to derive the APT?
A)

The factor portfolios are efficient.
B)

Investors can create diversified portfolios with no firm-specific risk.
C)

A factor model describes asset returns.



The APT is an equilibrium model that assumes that investors can create diversified portfolios and that a factor model describes asset returns. It does NOT require that factor portfolios (nor, as in the capital asset pricing model [CAPM], the market portfolio) be efficient. In effect, the APT assumes investors simply like more money to less, while the CAPM assumes they care about expected return and standard deviation and invest in efficient portfolios. The APT makes no reference to mean-variance analysis or assumptions about efficient portfolios. This weaker set of assumptions is an advantage of the APT over the CAPM.

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Which of the following is NOT an underlying assumption of the arbitrage pricing theory (APT)?
A)
Asset returns are described by a K factor model.
B)
There are a sufficient number of assets for investors to create diversified portfolios in which firm-specific risk is eliminated.
C)
A market portfolio exists that contains all risky assets and is mean-variance efficient.



The APT makes no assumption about a market portfolio.

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