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138#
发表于 2012-3-26 14:03
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The following data pertains to the Sapphire Company:- Net income equals $15,000.
- 5,000 shares of common stock issued on January 1st.
- 10% stock dividend issued on June 1st.
- 1,000 shares of common stock were repurchased on July 1st.
- 1,000 shares of 10%, $100 par preferred stock each convertible into 8 shares of common were outstanding the whole year.
What is the company’s diluted earnings per share (EPS)?
Number of average common shares:
1/1 5,500 shares issued (includes 10% stock dividend on 6/1) × 12 = 66,000
7/1 1,000 shares repurchased × 6 months = -6,000
= 60,000
60,000 shares / 12 months = 5,000 average shares
Preferred dividends = ($10)(1,000) = $10,000
Number of shares from the conversion of the preferred shares = (1,000 preferred shares)(8 shares of common/share of preferred) = 8,000 common
Diluted EPS = [$15,000(NI) − $10,000(pfd) + $10,000(pfd)] / 5000(common shares) + 8000(shares from the conv. pfd. shares) = $15,000 / 13,000 shares = $1.15/share
This number needs to be compared to basic EPS to see if the preferred shares are antidilutive.
Basic EPS = [$15,000(NI) − $10,000(preferred dividends)] / 5,000 shares = $5,000 / 5,000 shares = $1/share
Since the EPS after the conversion of the preferred shares is greater than before the conversion the preferred shares are antidilutive and they should not be treated as common in computing diluted EPS. Therefore diluted EPS is the same as basic EPS or $1/share. |
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