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发表于 2012-4-2 15:56
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A private equity investor expects to realize a return on her venture capital investment in two years and expects to sell the firm for $30 million. She estimates that a discount rate of 30% is reasonable but expects that there is a 20% probability of failure in any given year. The post-money value of her investment today, adjusted for failure, is closest to:
The investor must first adjust the discount rate for the probability of failure:
r* = (1 + r) / (1 − q) − 1, where r is the unadjusted discount rate, and q is the probability of failure.
r* = (1 + 0.30) / (1 − 0.20) − 1 = 0.625
To determine the post-money valuation, the projected future value must then be discounted at the adjusted discount rate:POST = FV / (1 + r*)N = ($30 million) / (1.625)2 = $11.36 million |
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