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37、If a 1-day 95 percent VAR is $5 million, the 250-day 99 percent VAR level would be closest to:


A) $55.89 million.


B) $83.84 million.


C) $111.79 million.


D) $21.00 million.

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The correct answer is C

 

First it is necessary to adjust for confidence levels (2.326/1.645), then by days (√250). In this case, ($5 million)(2.326/1.645)(√250) = $111.79 million.

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38、The relationship between a three month call option and its underlying stock are presented in the following table.

Volatility: σ            = 15.0%

Risk-free rate        = 6.0%

Exercise price (X) = 24

Time to maturity    = 3 months

S                          = $25.00

C                          = $1.60

 

Stock Price, S

$21.00

$22.00

$23.00

$24.00

$24.75

$25.00

Value of Call, C

$0.04

$0.15

$0.42

$0.91

$1.41

$1.60

Percentage Decrease in S

–16.00%

–12.00%

–8.00%

–4.00%

–1.00%

 

Percentage Decrease in C

–97.46%

–90.39%

–73.55%

–43.37%

–11.92%

 

Delta (ΔC%/ΔS%)

6.09

7.53

9.19

10.84

11.92

 

Using the linear derivative VAR method and the information in the above table, what is a five percent VAR for the call option’s weekly return?

A) 10.8%.


B) 40.9%.


C) 15.8%.


D) 21.3%.

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The correct answer is B


The weekly volatility is approximately equal to 2.08 percent a week (). The 5 percent VAR for the stock price is equivalent to a one standard deviation move, or 1.65 for the normal curve. The 5 percent VAR of the underlying stock is 0 – 2.08%(1.65)= –3.432%. A one percent change in the stock price results in a 11.92 percent change in the call option value, therefore, the delta = 0.1192/0.01 = 11.92. For small moves, delta can be used to estimate the change in the derivative given the VAR for the underlying asset as follows: VARCall = ΔVARStock =11.92(3.432%) = 0.409 or 40.9%. In words, the 5 percent VAR implies there is a 5 percent probability that the call option value will decline by 40.9% or more.

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Using the linear derivative VAR method and the information in the table, and assuming 255 trading days in a year, what is a 1-percent VAR for the call option’s daily return?

A) 11.9%.


B) 15.8%.


C) 43.4%.


D) 26.1%.

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The correct answer is D

The daily volatility is approximately equal to 0.94 percent a dayThe 1 percent VAR for the stock price is equivalent to a two standard deviation move, or 2.33 for the normal curve. The 1 percent VAR of the underlying stock is 0 – 0.94%(2.33) = 2.19%. A one percent change in the stock price results in a 11.92 percent change in the call option value, therefore, the delta = 0.1192/0.01 = 11.92. For small moves, delta can be used to estimate the change in the derivative given the VAR for the underlying asset as follows: VARCall = ΔVARStock = 11.92(2.19%) = 0.261 or 26.1%. In words, the 1 percent VAR implies there is a 1 percent probability that the call option value will decline by 26.1% or more.


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39、The most important way in which the Monte Carlo approach to estimating operational VAR differs from the historical method and variance-covariance method is:


A) its heavy dependence on historical data.


B) it involves repeatedly shocking a model of risk data to produce a range of potential losses.


C) its computational simplicity. 


D) its inability to account for non-linear risk structures. 

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The correct answer is B

 

The Monte Carlo approach uses simulation techniques, repeatedly shocking a model of loss data in order to produce a range of potential losses. It is more computationally intensive than either the historical or variance-covariance approaches. The model used can account for nonlinear risk structures and need not be limited by historical data.

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40、The VaR measure obtained from simulating data based on assumptions concerning the return distributions is called:


A) Prospective VaR.


B) Stochastic VaR. 


C) Monte Carlo VaR.


D) Kurtotic VaR. 

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The correct answer is C


Monte Carlo VaR uses data generated from a simulation procedure.

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