Isaac Long is an English investor. He notices the 90–day forward rate for the Norwegian kroner is GBP 0.0859 and the spot rate is GBP 0.0887. Long calculates the annualized rate of the kroner to be trading at a:
A)
premium of 9.478%.
B)
discount of 12.63%.
C)
premium of 21.17%.
[(forward rate − spot rate) / spot rate] × (360 / number of forward contract days) = [(0.0859 − 0.0887) / 0.0887] × (360 / 90) = −0.1263 or −12.63%.
The 90-day forward rate is EUR:USD 0.9420. Given a forward premium of EUR:USD 0.0027, what is the annualized percentage forward discount or premium for the Euro?
A)
1.150%.
B)
1.146%.
C)
11.500%.
Since we have a forward premium, we have to subtract it from the forward rate to get the spot rate of EUR:USD 0.9393. (Note that the $ is weaker in the forward market as it takes more dollars to buy one Euro.)
The annualized percentage forward premium = (0.0027 / 0.9393) × (360 / 90) × 100 = 1.150%
Assume the 1 year USD:EUR forward rate is 0.89348, the German interest rate is 3.38 percent, and the U.S. interest rate is 1.90 percent. If interest rate parity (IRP) holds, the USD:EUR spot rate is approximately:
Assume that the domestic nominal rate of return is 4% and the foreign nominal rate of return is 5%. If the current exchange rate is FCC 0.400, the forward rate consistent with interest rate parity is:
A)
0.396.
B)
0.400.
C)
0.318.
F/S= (1 + rD) / (1 + rF) where the currency is quoted as FCC
F = (1.04/1.05)(0.400) = 0.396
Given a forward exchange rate of 5 DC/FC, a spot rate of 5.102 DC/FC, domestic interest rates of 8%, and foreign rates of 10%, which of the following statements is CORRECT based on the approximation formula?
A)
Arbitrage opportunities do not exist.
B)
Arbitrage opportunities exist.
C)
Borrow local currency and lend foreign currency.
If (rD − rF) is approximately equal to the forward premium, which is (Forward D/F) − Spot(D/F) / Spot(D/F), then no arbitrage opportunities exist.
0.08 − 0.10 ≅ (5 − 5.102) / 5.102.
-0.02 ≅ -0.01999.
Suppose the Argentina peso is at a 1-year forward premium of 4% relative to the Brazilian real and that Argentina’s 1-year interest rate is 7%. If interest rate parity holds, then the Brazilian interest rate is closest to:
A)
6.60%.
B)
11.00%.
C)
3.00%.
According to interest rate parity the currency with the lower interest rate is expected to appreciate so the Argentina rate of 7% is approximately 4% less than the Brazilian rate of 7 + 4 = 11%.