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The factor risk premium on factor j in the arbitrage pricing theory (APT) can be interpreted as the:
A)

sensitivity of the market portfolio to factor j.
B)

expected return investors require on a factor portfolio for factor j.
C)

expected risk premium investors require on a factor portfolio for factor j.



We can interpret the APT factor risk premiums similar to the way we interpret the market risk premium in the CAPM. Each factor price is the expected risk premium (extra expected return minus the risk-free rate) investors require for a portfolio with a sensitivity of one (βp,j =1) to that factor and a sensitivity of zero to all the other factors (a factor portfolio).

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The Arbitrage Pricing Theory (APT) has all of the following characteristics EXCEPT it:
A)
assumes that arbitrage opportunities are available to investors.
B)
is an equilibrium pricing model.
C)
assumes that asset returns are described by a factor model.



The APT assumes that no arbitrage opportunities are available to investors

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Which of the following is an equilibrium-pricing model?
A)

Macroeconomic factor model.
B)

Fundamental factor model.
C)

The arbitrage pricing theory (APT).



The APT is an equilibrium-pricing model; multi-factor models are “ad-hoc,” meaning the factors in these models are not derived directly from an equilibrium theory. Rather they are identified empirically by looking for macroeconomic variables that best fit the data.

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the arbitrage pricing theory (APT) holds, it determines:
A)

factor sensitivities in a multi-factor model.
B)

the factor prices in a multi-factor model.
C)

the intercept term in a multi-factor model.



One way to think about the relationship between the APT and multi-factor models is to recognize that the intercept term in a multi-factor model is the asset’s expected return; the APT is an expected return model that tells us what that intercept should be.

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One of the assumptions of the arbitrage pricing theory (APT) is that there are no arbitrage opportunities available. An arbitrage opportunity is:
A)

an investment that has an expected positive net cash flow but requires no initial investment.
B)

a factor portfolio with a positive expected risk premium.
C)

a portfolio with factor exposures that sum to one.


One of the three assumptions of the APT is that there are no arbitrage opportunities available to investors among these well-diversified portfolios. An arbitrage opportunity is an investment that has an expected positive net cash flow but requires no initial investment.
All factor portfolios will have positive risk premiums equal to the factor price for that factor. An arbitrage opportunity does not necessarily require a return equal to the risk-free rate, and the factor exposures for an arbitrage portfolio are all equal to zero.

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Which of the following statements regarding the arbitrage pricing theory (APT) as compared to the capital asset pricing model (CAPM) is least accurate? APT:
A)
does not require that one of the risk factors is the market portfolio; unlike the CAPM.
B)

is often times thought of as a special case of the CAPM.
C)

has fewer assumptions than CAPM.



The CAPM is often times thought of as a special case of the APT since CAPM has only one factor, the market portfolio.

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An arbitrage pricing theory (APT) model has the following characteristics:
  • The risk free rate is 3.8%.
  • Factor risk premiums are:
  • (7%)
  • (4%)
  • (2%)
  • (10%)

Assume Silver Linings Fund has the following sensitivities to the factors:
  • Sensitivity to A is 0.5.
  • Sensitivity to B is 1.2.
  • Sensitivity to C is 2.1.
  • Sensitivity to D is 0.2.

The expected return on the Silver Linings Fund is:
A)
14.5%.
B)
18.3%.
C)
20.1%.



E(R) = 3.8 + (0.5 × 7) + (1.2 × 4) + (2.1 × 2) + (0.2 × 10) = 18.3.

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Gold Horizon, an investment firm, utilizes a three-factor APT model for its Unique & Rich (U&R) fund. The risk-free rate equals 4%. Using the table below, determine U&R’s expected return.

GNP
Factor

Inflation Factor

Investor Confidence
Factor

U&R factor beta

1.75

1.5

1.25

Factor risk premium

0.020

0.015

0.013

A)
7.38%.
B)
11.38%.
C)
4.49%.



E(RU&R) = 0.04 + 1.75(0.02) + 1.5(0.015) + 1.25(0.013)
E(RU&R) = 0.04 + 0.035 + 0.0225 + 0.01625
E(RU&R) = 11.375% ≈ 11.38%

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Jose Morales has been investing for years, mostly using index funds. But because he is not satisfied with his returns, he decides to meet with Bill Smale, a financial adviser with Big Gains Asset Management.Morales lays out his concerns about active management:
  • “Mutual funds average returns below their benchmarks.”
  • “All the buying and selling makes for less-efficient markets.”
  • “Expenses are higher with active management.”
  • “Analyst forecasts are often wrong.”

In an effort to win Morales’ business, Smale explains the benefits of active management, starting with the fact that market efficiency is a prime concern of active managers because efficient markets make active management possible. He then explains that active management allows for better protection against systematic risk, and that Big Gains uses multifactor models to adjust investment strategies to account for economic changes. Lastly, Smale tells Morales how Big Gains Asset Management has pledged never to reveal clients’ personal information to third parties.
Morales seems willing to listen, so Smale explains Big Gains’ management strategy, which involves a modified version of the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) using the Dow Jones Total Market Index. He raves about this valuation model, citing its ability to project future alphas, determine true market betas of individual stocks, create an accurate picture of the market portfolio, and provide an alternative for calculated covariances in the charting of the Markowitz Efficient Frontier.
After an hour of verbal sparring with Smale, Morales is not yet convinced of the wisdom of active management. He turns to Tobin Capital, calling Susan Worthan, a college friend who works as an analyst in the equity department. Tobin Capital uses the arbitrage pricing theory (APT) to value stocks. Worthan explains that APT offers several benefits relative to the CAPM, most notably its dependence on fewer and less restrictive assumptions.
After listening to Worthan’s explanation of the APT, Morales asked her how the theory dealt with mispriced stocks, drawing a table with the following data to illustrate his question:

Stock

Current PriceEst. Price in 1 YearCorrelation with S&P 500Standard Deviation of ReturnsBeta
Xavier Flocking$45$510.5717%1.68
Yaris Yarn$6$6.750.407%1.21
Zimmer Autos$167$1810.8910.5%0.34


After seeing Morales’ stock example, Worthan tells him that he still does not understand APT and tries to explain how the theory deals with mispriced stocks. Which of the following statements is most accurate? Under APT:
A)
any mispricings will be immediately rectified.
B)
mispricings cannot occur, and there is no arbitrage opportunity.
C)
the calculation of unsystematic risk is so accurate that mispricings are rare.



Arbitrage pricing theory holds that any arbitrage opportunities will be exploited immediately, making the mispricing disappear. (Study Session 18, LOS 60.l)

Which of the following is least likely an assumption of the market model?
A)
The expected value of the error term is zero.
B)
Unsystematic risk can be diversified away.
C)
The firm-specific surprises are uncorrelated across assets.



The assumption that unsystematic risk can be diversified away is an assumption of the arbitrage pricing theory. (Study Session 18, LOS 60.g)

Smale best makes his point about the superiority of active management with his mention of:
A)
multifactor models.
B)
systematic risk.
C)
market efficiency.



Systematic risk cannot be diversified away, and there is no dependable evidence that active management can help control it. Active managers attempt to capitalize on inefficiencies in the market, and a truly efficient market would eliminate the need for active management. However, multifactor models are a useful tool for active managers, and a high-quality model may indeed represent a competitive advantage over a passive manager. (Study Session 18, LOS 60.j)

Which assumption is required by both the CAPM and the APT?
A)
There are no transaction costs.
B)
All investors have the same return expectations.
C)
Asset prices are not discounted for unsystematic risk.



The assumptions that all investors have the same expectations and that there are no transaction costs are specific to CAPM, not APT. However, both models assume that unsystematic risk can be diversified away, and has a risk premium of zero. (Study Session 18, LOS 60.n)

Which of Morales’ arguments against active management is least accurate?
A)
“Mutual funds average returns below their benchmarks.”
B)
“Expenses are higher with active management.”
C)
“All the buying and selling makes for less-efficient markets.”



When little money is actively managed, asset prices begin to deviate from fair values. Active management exploits inefficiencies and drives prices back toward equilibrium. Both remaining arguments are valid. (Study Session 18, LOS 60.m)

Assuming Morales’ numbers are correct, portfolio allocation of 65% of one stock and 35% of a second would allow arbitrage profits to be closest to:
A)
0.29%.
B)
0.90%.
C)
0%.



A portfolio containing 65% Xavier Flocking and 35% Zimmer Auto would have a weighted average beta of (65% × 1.68) + (35% × 0.34) = 1.21, which is the same as the beta of Yaris Yarn. The weighted average return of the combined portfolio is 11.6%, versus a 12.5% return for Yaris Yarn. Buying Yaris Yarn and selling the Xavier/Zimmer portfolio would earn an estimated 0.9% without investing any capital or taking on any systematic risk. (Study Session 18, LOS 60.n)

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A portfolio with a factor sensitivity of one to a particular factor in a multi-factor model and zero to all other factors is called a(n):
A)

tracking portfolio.
B)

factor portfolio.
C)

arbitrage portfolio.



A factor portfolio is a portfolio with a factor sensitivity of one to a particular factor and zero to all other factors. An arbitrage portfolio is a portfolio with factor sensitivities of zero to all factors, positive expected net cash flow, and an initial investment of zero. A tracking portfolio is a portfolio with a specific set of factor sensitivities designed to replicate the factor exposures of a benchmark index.

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