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US gaap.
Equity method:  goodwill = purchase price - fair value - premium allocated to identifable assets
Consolidation: goodwill = purchase price - fair value
IFRS:
Consolidation: a) full goodwill: same as US gaap consolidaiton
b) partial goodwill: purchase price (only for % acquired)  - fair value (% of  investment)

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How would that be different under acquisition method?

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Full Goodwill: 100% Fair Value - 100% of Fair Value of Identifiable Net Assets
Partial Goodwill: Purchase Price (Proportionate Share of Fair Value) - Proportionate Share of Identifiable Net Assets at Fair Value
In equity method, the goodwill is included in the one line investment account. Its the portion of the purchase price in excess of book value and fair value of identifiable assets and liabilities.
In acquisition menthod, the goodwill is also the excess over fair value of identifiable assets and liabilities but reported as a separate line item due to the full line-by-line consolidation of each account. If less than 100% is held, the balance is minority interest in equity section.

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It’s purchase price - book value not fair value.
Q44 2011 AM Mock has a problem with Goodwill for the an Investment in Associates. It takes the Excess paid over Book Value less the amount attributable to tangible assets (which is the the % owned * (fair value - BV of tangible assets). That gets your your goodwill. When calculating the value of your investment going forward, you then amortize that amount attributable to tangible assets.
pepp wrote:
US gaap.
Equity method:  goodwill = purchase price - fair value - premium allocated to identifable assets
Consolidation: goodwill = purchase price - fair value
IFRS:
Consolidation: a) full goodwill: same as US gaap consolidaiton
b) partial goodwill: purchase price (only for % acquired)  - fair value (% of  investment)

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EQUITY METHOD:
Full Goodwill – Fair Value - BOOK Value of Net Identifiable assets (same under IFRS and US GAAP)
Equity reminds me of Book Value


ACQUISITION METHOD:
Full Goodwill – Fair value - Fair Value of Net Identifiable assets (same under IFRS and US GAAP)
Partial Goodwill – Purchase Price - Parents Proportionate share of Net Identifiable Assets (only under IFRS)
So its FF under Full goodwill and PPPP under Partial goodwill

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Nice one Spyali!

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nospe690 wrote:
It’s not book value, it’s fair value of net identifiable for the equity method
I agree.

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When you purchase a stake in a company, for say, $100, the fair value of net identifiable assets is 90 and the book value is 50 :
Goodwill is 10 under the equity method, which is technically partial goodwill since you are only reporting your share of the assets. Partial vs full goodwill refers to consolidation.
The difference between 90 and 50 (fair minus book) is allocated to the identifiable assets - you are basically writing up the assets from their old book values - remember assets go on the balance sheet at historical cost and the fair value at the time of acquisition is the ACQUIRER’s historical cost.

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nvestn wrote:
Anybody disagree with me? I am confident in my answer but would like to see if someone thinks I’m wrong…
Havent read everything you said. But if I understand you correctly, you were making the point that the excess of the purchase price over book value has two components 1) An allocation to the Fair Value of Net Identifiable Assets and 2) Goodwill (remainder that can’t be allocated) - then I 100% agree with you. Thats whats done in the text book.
Just to be sure. Is it correct to say Under the equity method, we would only allocate the excess to our proportionate share of the fair value differences (such as PPE), and we adjust the income by amortizing this excess. In the acquisition method we would have to use either full or partial goodwill method to determine the amount recognized as goodwill.

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