I think the original answer is correct, and my doubt is that you probably connect the question two with previouse one. To treat this question as an indipendent set, things will go as what answer given.
initial outlay: a 100k decrease, and depreciation got 100k/8 every year, which means a 100k/8*(tax margin) write down on each year cash flow.
simplied calculation will be CF0=-100K, C01=5k, F01=8, I=10 => NPV=-73,325.37 | 
发表于 2010-4-18 13:28
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