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yodacaia

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tT
发表于 2013-4-2 11:10 | 只看该作者

Leveraged Floater Example in CFA book

payments, capital, LIBOR
Pg 489 of Volume 5. If says this transaction requires no capital. I can’t see how that is the case. You issue a floater that pays 1.5x LIBOR.
Lets say you issue a 100MM issue with payments of LIBOR x 1.5
Then, it says you buy a bond from American Factories with face if 1.5x FP = 1.5x 100MM = 150MM
Where does the 50MM come from?
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brain_wash_your

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发表于 2013-4-2 11:10 | 只看该作者
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ASSet_MANagemen

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发表于 2013-4-2 11:10 | 只看该作者
To be able to cancel out your LIBOR payments against LIBOR receipts, you need a notional principal of 1.5x100MM.. does this help?

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DarienHacker

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发表于 2013-4-2 11:11 | 只看该作者
That is the explaination given in the example as well.
However, the cash proceeds from raising the Floater would not be 150Mn, it would rather be 100mn. This means that either one has to purchase bonds which are in deep discount or borrow more money.
Thus there should be a borrowing cost also involved. I think that has been ignored.
This problem has troubled me a lot but now I’ve gave up and just memorised it.

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Windjam

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5#
发表于 2013-4-2 11:11 | 只看该作者
In a swap transaction, you never borrow money… you simply pay the net interest payments.. 150M is just a notional amount that the interest payments are based on.

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