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3#
发表于 2013-4-12 22:54
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Yes, I do mean the last row.
I don’t have a problem with MS law governing, as it seems to me unless the MS law explicitly points to the LS law then it should automatically govern (being stricter).
My problem is with the logical sequence - after the semi-colon it says “LS law applies”, then goes on to qualify it (as if the MS law only ultimately applies because LS law has pointed to it).
Even if LS law, for example, in this case were silent on the law of locality of business governing, shouldn’t MS law apply anyway by default? The way it is written suggests (wrongly?) that LS law would apply but for the proviso it contains.
And my understanding is that MS law always applies, unless it “excuses” itself.
I hope this is clear, because for some reason I’m finding it tough to explain! |
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