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Can someone please explain me the logic behind the answer to this question?
"U.S. investor has invested in German bonds. Short-term interest rate in the U.S. is 4% and in Germany is 3.2%. The investor expects Euro to appreciate against U.S. dollar by 0.6. Assuming IRP to hold, should he or should he not hedge?"
The book answer is to go ahead and hedge because the rates differential is greater than the expected return on euro of 0.6 percent.
I can't help but think that if you have investment in local currency that is likely to experience greater appreciation than you what you project, then why not continue holding it unhedged? If it is going to appreciate 0.8 as opposed to your projection of 0.6, you will get more domestic currency (U.S. dollar) when you translate local currency to domestic currency. What am I missing here? |
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