If only vs ceteris paribus
The way ceteris paribus is explained in the book is confusing. They use the example:
So the stock market would have crashed but for the presence of government led manipulation.
(Level III Volume 2 Behavioral Finance, Individual Investors, and Institutional Investors , 4th Edition. Pearson Learning Solutions 74).
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Aren't they also saying their analysis would have been correct if the government didn't manipulate the market? Sound like it could be the if only defense too.
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