<第一个疑问:> Level 1, Book 1, Page 91 Example: FV of an annuity due. If you deposit $1,000 in the bank today and at the beginning of each of the next three years, how much will you have six years from today at 6 percent interest? The Time line for this question is shown: 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 !---------------!---------------!---------------!---------------!---------------!---------------! -1,000 -1,000 -1,000 -1,000 答案说:compute the FV of the annuity due at the end of year 4 (FV4) N=4, I/Y=6 .............. FV4=$4637.09 然后:N=2.............算出FV6=5210.23 我很不明白这里怎么可以先算出year 4末的FV呢?因为题目中只是说deposit 1,000 in the next three years,我认为应该先算出year 3末的FV3,之后再FV6=FV3x(1+0.06)^3=3374.62x1.19=4019.62 就可以了。 谢谢老师指点,这个问题我想了好久了。 <第二个疑问: >另外一到题目还是关于这个问题的,page 104的Exam Flashback# 6,题目中说and on each of the next 19 years, 可是为什么答案计算的时候是N=20,我怎么看怎么觉得这个问题和LOS中Page 91中最下方的PV of an Annuity Due的例题没有什么区别阿,怎么例题计算当中用的就是题目中的年数3,而Exam Flashback中的这道题目却是N=题目中的年数+1?? 大师指点,将不胜感激!! [em06] |