When calculating the correlation coefficient
P1,2 = (COV1,2) / (standard deviation 1) X (standard deviation 2)
(given that 1 is stock 1 and 2 is stock 2)
Now, when considering beta; we standardize the systematic risk in units of "market risk" by:
Beta1 = (COV1,mkt) / (variance mkt)
What I want to know is why in the correlation formula standard deviation is in the denominator and when calculating beta, variance is used in the denominator? |