Board logo

标题: Free Cash Flow to the Firm [打印本页]

作者: bleach    时间: 2011-7-11 19:27     标题: Free Cash Flow to the Firm

Study Session 12, Reading 41.

The formula is FCFF = NI + Dep + Int(1-t) - FCInv - WCInv

In computing FCFF, why do you add back the full value of depreciation expense and not the after-tax value (like interest expense)?

Thank you for your help.
作者: economicz    时间: 2011-7-11 19:27

its 1) non-cash 2) if acquired, the mgt can change depreciation and affect taxes, at least my opinion
作者: Pegasus2008    时间: 2011-7-11 19:27

That's how I see it too.
作者: defour44    时间: 2011-7-11 19:27

Because depreciation has already tax sheltered your income (you deducted it already in determining NI), and the remaining amount is entirely non-cash.
作者: DSquaredSlim    时间: 2011-7-11 19:27

Just imagine if you own the whole firm and do not have any bonds then you would pay tax for the interest. That is the reason you only save 70% of the interest and not in the case of depreciation.
作者: genuinecfa    时间: 2011-7-11 19:27

I pay interest of $10 million. Assuming a 30% tax rate, i reduced my taxes by $3 million (for a net cash interest expense of $7 million). Therefore, i add back my net interest expense ($7 million) to get to FCFF

I record depreciation of $100 million, which reduces my taxes by $30 million. I must add back the entire $100 million, because it was a non cash expense, and I'm trying to arrive at a cash number.
作者: SpyAli    时间: 2011-7-11 19:27

when you get NI, you deduct the full amount of Dep.

so you have to add full amount of Dep. don have to consider the tax.
作者: Kapie    时间: 2011-7-11 19:27

Unliever is right, unlike interest, depreciation is subject to different rates for tax and accouting purposes. If depreciation for both tax and accouting purposes is the same, the tax benefit is already built into Net Income. Otherwise, the difference is recognized by working capital adjustments (increases/decreases to DTA or DTL).
作者: jarobi04    时间: 2011-7-11 19:27

also another way to think about it...

differing companies may have different levels of debt / different interest payments. if you add back the After-tax interest to the calculation - it becomes more comparable across companies.

CP




欢迎光临 CFA论坛 (http://forum.theanalystspace.com/) Powered by Discuz! 7.2