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标题: 2011 Mock Question 46 [打印本页]

作者: LPoulin133    时间: 2011-7-13 16:12     标题: 2011 Mock Question 46

I am wondering why the answer to this should not be C. I feel C is more valid than B.
作者: Windjam    时间: 2011-7-13 16:12

Currency risk can be minimized diversifying across markets, not eliminated.
作者: susana    时间: 2011-7-13 16:12

But C says that "correlations between equity and currency markets are so low that overall currency risk is minimal" - which is not true for all markets. I feel C is also a problem.
作者: pennyless    时间: 2011-7-13 16:12

B is the worst answer.
作者: infinitybenzo    时间: 2011-7-13 16:12

So Paraguay - do you feel C could be an answer - not sure if I got you?
作者: Roflnadal    时间: 2011-7-13 16:12

Seems pretty straight forward to me. You CANNOT eliminate currency risk via diversification - you must use forwards for that. Thus, the fact that he says you can ELIMINATE currency risk via diversification is blatantly wrong.
作者: Windjammer    时间: 2011-7-13 16:12

But is it not blatantly wrong to assume that "correlations between equity and currency markets are so low that overall currency risk is minimal"?
作者: Unforseen    时间: 2011-7-13 16:12

manishsd Wrote:
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> But is it not blatantly wrong to assume that
> "correlations between equity and currency markets
> are so low that overall currency risk is minimal"?

Not really, have you traded EU/US/JPY risk convergence in the last 3 years?
作者: bodhisattva    时间: 2011-7-13 16:12

Nope - sorry!!
作者: mp3bu    时间: 2011-7-13 16:12

manishsd Wrote:
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> Nope - sorry!!

Developed market equities have had a very high inverse correlation. Long term this has held well.

Developing have positive correlation between equities and currency.
作者: Valores    时间: 2011-7-13 16:12

Okay - so the answer is B - cool!!




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