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急问leverage ratio的问题

是note上的题,book4,P214

 

"for example an investor wo satisfies an inital margin requirement of 50% equity has a 2-to-1 leverage ratio so tha a 10% increase (decrease) in the price of the asset results in a 20% increase (decrease) in the investor's equity."

 

我觉得这个results in a 20% increase有错,我觉得应该是5%的increase。

 

因为leverage ratio = Vaule of assets devided by value of equity position. so 2-to-1 leverage ratio means that value of asset is 2 times of value of equity. so the 10% increase in price should incur 10%/2=5% increase in value of equity.

 

Don't you think so? 我不明白书上的意思。是不是书上写错了呢?求真相!!!!!!!!!!!!

thanks~

thanks~我明白了~~~

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