fenglee

伦敦考的，上午还可以感觉不是很难，下午感觉答得不是很好

fenglee

 

[此贴子已经被作者于2011-6-7 0:53:31编辑过]

fenglee

 

[此贴子已经被作者于2011-6-7 0:54:13编辑过]

fenglee

 

[此贴子已经被作者于2011-6-7 0:54:38编辑过]

fenglee

再加一个，IMMUNIZATION RATE < YTM 是因为YIELD CURVE 什么SHAPE?

fenglee

 

[此贴子已经被作者于2011-6-7 0:57:09编辑过]

fenglee

QUOTE:

以下是引用wishmeluck在2011-6-5 21:06:00的发言：

原来牛人那么多，当初备考问问题的时候，咋牛人没出现捏？~~

 

有道题是它说是RISK tolerance increase proportional to wealth increase, 不是单纯的wealth, 如果是针对increase的话，用constant mix的risk tolerance是固定的吧 

这个我也错了，看书VOL6， PAGE 100下面的EXAMPLE 9，概念理解的问题, brightcool is right

fenglee

QUOTE:

以下是引用brightcool在2011-6-5 21:11:00的发言：
never deviate IPS unless you modify it with clients

The answer i chose said you can use your discretion when you see opportunity fits, but you have to agree BEFOREHAND with the client.

fenglee

QUOTE:

以下是引用brightcool在2011-6-5 21:22:00的发言：
no , see book 264no2

I think this different from the context in the exam, the exam question is more around tactical asset allocation, it is not improper for a manager to seize the opportunity in the market where he see fits as long as they are agree and understood with the client.

fenglee

QUOTE:

以下是引用coshair在2011-6-5 21:12:00的发言：

 

这个地方，constant mix应该是relative risk tolerance相对不变，absolute risk tolerance会变大

 

我觉得应该是CPPI吧由于m>1所以equity是成比例增长

这题其实开始有提示，MANAGER PREDICT the market is non-trending, 这两道我也都错了，没找到做这类题的核心 看vol6, page 100, example 9, 基本一样