yuoska

No, if you acted in good faith on your clients directives, and had no reason to expect that the client is acting on inside information, you have not violated ethical standards.
The tricky question is what do you do if you receive an order to buy or sell from your client and you happen to know that your client is in possession of and acting on insider information.  I don’t think the standards of practice cover that situation.  Legally, you may be liable for conspiracy for insider trading, and you may have an obligation not to do it, and the standards to require you to follow local laws on this sort of thing, but presumably there has to be some kind of standard for knowing that the information is illegal to use, plus a standard for knowing that that information is in fact the motivation for your client’s decision.
I guess one just hopes that one never finds oneself in that situation, or - if you do - there is sufficient plausible deniability that you weren’t certain and gave your client the benefit of the doubt.