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Discrepancy (I think?) between two equitizing questions

In the first question (no need to read the whole question), the answer is A, which means that choice C is correct (i.e. "In a long-short, market neutral strategy the benchmark should be the risk-free rate" is a true statement). Given that, I would expect the answer to the second question to be C, since you have a market neutral strategy + a futures position. Can someone explain why the risk free rate is ignored in the second question? Thanks.


Question 1
Which of the following concerning investment strategies is least accurate?

A) If a manager does not have an opinion about an index stock in stock-based enhanced indexing strategy, they will not hold the stock.
B) Stock-based enhanced indexing strategy can produce higher information ratios because investors can apply their knowledge to a large number of securities.
C) In a long-short, market neutral strategy the benchmark should be the risk-free rate.

The correct answer was A.

If a manager does not have an opinion about an index stock in a stock-based enhanced indexing strategy, they will hold the stock at the same level as the benchmark. Stock-based enhanced indexing strategies can produce higher information ratios because the investor can systematically apply his knowledge to a large number of securities, each of which would require independent decisions. Because a long-short, market neutral strategy has no systematic risk, its benchmark should be the risk-free rate (the return on T-bills).



Question 2
Which of the following is the correct benchmark for a market neutral long-short strategy equitized with S&P 500 futures contracts?

A) The S&P 500 index.
B) The risk-free rate.
C) The S&P 500 index plus the risk-free rate.

The correct answer was A.

If a long-short, market neutral strategy is equitized, the benchmark is the underlying index of the futures contract (in this case the S&P 500).

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