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Question Regarding Reading 40, Example 1, Page 295-Currency

If one is short a forward on a notional of $1MM and the current forward rate is 1Euro/$. Few weeks later the Forward rate is 0.95Euro/$. How does this translate into a gain for the position that is short?
Isn’t the person who is short still liable for completing the contract at 1Euro/$?
I have not gone all of the example but that is the jist of my question.
Thanks in advance.

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