PV of bond's cash flow face, something, discount, interest, payments

busprof

I have a question about the wording of a lesson I looked @ that doesn't seem to make sense to me. I wonder if I'm missing something them. The details of the problem itself don't really matter, but the problem is:

Bond pays coupon interest payments of 70 euros (7% of its face value) at the end of each year and will also pay the full face value of 1,000 euros at maturity in five years. Assuming a discount rate of 8%, whats the present value of the bond’s promised cash flow?

My issue is that at the end of the problem, the lesson says:

"So with a YIELD TO MATURITY of 8%, the bond's present value is 960 euros."

My question is, why are they referring to the discount rate as the YTM, when YTM means the rate of return anticipated on a bond if it is held until the maturity date, taking into account the current market price, par value, coupon interest rate and time to maturity?

Isn't the 8% just the rate we used to discount the future cash flow of the bond, which is very different from the YTM of this particular bond?! Am I missing something?