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Another Ethics Question (Strictest Law)
| Let’s say you have a person living in the US and working for a US firm. His home country is some oppressive dictatorship. His firm asks him to do something that’s clearly illegal in his home country but is perfectly legal in the US and doesn’t violate the CFA code of standards (by itself.) If his firm doesn’t do any business in his home country, is this person required to dissociate with his firm and follow the laws of his home country? |
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发表于 2013-4-28 10:13
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