NPV for cash flow in perpetuity investment, discount, positive, expected, generate

JustasS

Came across an example question and I'm confused how this is calculated

Question:
Cutter Inc. is considering the purchase of a new material handling system for a cost of 15 million. The system is expected to generate a positive cash flow of 1.8 million per year in perpetuity. What is the NPV of the proposed investment if the discount rate is 10.5%

The answer states
NPV = PV(cash inflows) - CF0
= (1.8 million /.105) - 15 million = 2,142,857

Is this possible to calculate using the NPV function on the BA II, I'm confused how they determined this if the cash flow is indefinate. Can someone help explain?