Leases - confused on interest income/payments payments

cyber21

Hi guys, hoping someone can help -- very confused...

in the lease examples in the CFA textbooks (lessee on page 523, lessor on page 534 and 536) they have tables showing the interest expense for the first year is 0. but in the text they say it is the beginning value of the liability/receivable (ie after the Jan 1 payment), multiplied by the interest rate.

why don't the tables and the text seem to match? and if you're asked to work out the interest expense for Year 2, do you assume interest expense of 0 in year 1 (ie the whole payment reduces the liability/receivable)?

I'm hoping there is a logical explanation to this that I just can't see! thanks much