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- 2011-7-11
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- 2016-4-18
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Rather than just lear the "trick", here's the intuition behind the problem:
The IRR is the discount rate that results in an NPV of zero. So, since the cash inflows are a perpetuity,
NPV = -25,000 + 5,000/i
set NPV to zero and solve for i: 0 = 5.000/- - 25,000 ==> i=0.20 |
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发表于 2011-7-13 13:34
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