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Assigned Reading #41: Free Cash Flow Valuation

Two questions:
In calculating free cash flow from net income,
FCFF= NI + NCC + [Int x (1-tax rate)] - FCInv - WCInv
why do we not tax affect the NCC as well? After all, depreciation and amortization are tax-deductible, just as interest expense is. Am I missing something?
Why is net borrowing added back to FCFF to get to FCFE? In what sense is cash that was just issued through a debt issue available to equityholders but not debtholders?
Thank you.

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