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“I don’t really understand this. The formula for variance of the sample means = (sd squared)/n. Therefore, doesn’t it make sense that as degrees of freedom get larger, that also means n gets larger, making the right side of the equation (and thus the left side i.e. the variance) also approach zero? This would make choice B a true statement. ”
I agree with you  I don’t understand it either. Can anyone else explain this without just saying “ya it’s B”. We know it’s B, we want to know WHY. Thanks

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