Econ IRP vs. Derivatives IRP currency, believe, appears

btcapital

Could someone confirm if my belief is true:
So it appears that the IRP formula in econ is designated as: F/S=(1+Rfc)/(1+Rdc)…but I believe we are given the F or S rate as an indirect quote - DC:FC.
In the Derivatives section on forwards the IRP formula is: F/S=(1+Rdc)/(1+Rfc)…but I believe we are given the F or S rate as a direct quote FCC.
Is this correct?
If we get an IRP problem in econ are we to assume (if not told which currency is DC) that the currency quoted as a:b, the “a” currency would be the domestic currency.
And if we get an IRP problem in derivatives are we just to assume that the quote is a direct quote since this seems to be the standard way to quote?