Walex

nvestn wrote:
Anybody disagree with me? I am confident in my answer but would like to see if someone thinks I’m wrong…
Havent read everything you said. But if I understand you correctly, you were making the point that the excess of the purchase price over book value has two components 1) An allocation to the Fair Value of Net Identifiable Assets and 2) Goodwill (remainder that can’t be allocated) - then I 100% agree with you. Thats whats done in the text book.
Just to be sure. Is it correct to say Under the equity method, we would only allocate the excess to our proportionate share of the fair value differences (such as PPE), and we adjust the income by amortizing this excess. In the acquisition method we would have to use either full or partial goodwill method to determine the amount recognized as goodwill.