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triangular arbitrage and implied cross rates question

Quick question, on p.489 in CFAi book in the second paragraph (2nd arbitrage constraint) they set the ratios so that to get a/c u need to have a/b and c/b….. but in all the examples its usually set up so that the relationship is a/c=(a/b)(b/c) and u can cancel out currency b (this is for questions without inverting) …. so  my question is: is the paragraph wrong? Or am i missing something? Sorry for any typos im on my tablet and it sucks to type

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