ba736

I, too, like the explanation that when dealing with segmented market, we have correlation of 1 because we’re measuring against local market.
Problem with this is that in all the questions i’ve seen we are only given one GIM Sharpe, and we use the same GIM Sharpe in BOTH of the components that we weight
when we take a weighted average of the expected returns under full integration v. full segmentation
see, the Schweser example on page 93 in SS6
and yes, would be happy to work on the zoya-jbaphna update!