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First, thanks for responding:
ok. Here’s where I am confused.
We have a UK investor.
We have a Canadian stock.
We have the formula: domestic currency exposure of an asset = foreign currency exposure +1
———
My questions:
1) I knows this sounds really lame, but who/what is the domestic exposure?
2) Who/what is the the foreign currency exposure
3) Who/what is the “local” currency exposure?

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